UGC NET PAPER-1 SOLVED PAPER – MARCH 2023 (english medium)

Sooraj Krishna Shastri
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UGC NET Solved Paper - March 2023

UGC NET PAPER-1

SOLVED PAPER – MARCH 2023

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Direction (Q 1–5)

The following table shows the distribution of male (M) and female (F) athletes who participated in an Annual Sports Event from five different countries A–E over the years 2016 to 2021.

Years ↓ A (M)A (F) B (M)B (F) C (M)C (F) D (M)D (F) E (M)E (F)
2016220165315210225155280205235105
2017330210420310345165420315390260
201823090370240240140465365435325
2019480245570420330210630470445290
2020590320530260390315720510590460
2021410260320360540345780605680490
Q.1
The difference between the number of male and female athletes from country C was the second highest in the year ____.
  • a. 2016
  • b. 2017
  • c. 2019
  • d. 2021
Correct Answer: (d) 2021
Q.2
The average number of female athletes who participated from Country B over the years together was ____.
  • a. 300
  • b. 275
  • c. 310
  • d. 280
Correct Answer: (b) 275
Q.3
The approximate percentage decrease in the number of male athletes who participated from Country C in the year 2018 as compared to the previous year was ____.
  • a. 21%
  • b. 25%
  • c. 30%
  • d. 35%
Correct Answer: (a) 21%
Q.4
The number of female athletes who participated from Country E in the year 2020 was ____ % of the total number of athletes who participated from Country B in the year 2019.
  • a. 60
  • b. 56
  • c. 50
  • d. 46
Correct Answer: (b) 56
Q.5
In the year 2017, the total number of athletes who participated in the event was the second highest from country ____.
  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. D
  • d. E
Correct Answer: (c) D
Q.6
The quality of one’s memory can generally be judged on the basis of his/her
  • a. Power of retention
  • b. Analytical ability
  • c. Communication skills
  • d. Mathematical numeracy
Correct Answer: (a) Power of retention
Q.7
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Padlet is a game-based platform used in educational institutions to create quizzes, conversions and surveys.
Statement II: Seesaw is an app-based platform that allows students to work together on texts, PDFs, drawings and videos etc.
  • a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • b. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Correct Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Q.8
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Vygotsky emphasized the significant role played by adults and more able peers in children’s learning.
Statement II: The zone of proximal development is the area, where the child solves a problem alone without the help of others.
  • a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • b. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Correct Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Q.9
According to David and Johnson, which of the following are the basic elements of cooperative learning groups?
  1. Self conceptualisation
  2. Individual accountability
  3. Skill development
  4. Positive interdependence
  5. Promotive interaction
  • a. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • b. 1, 2 and 5 only
  • c. 2, 4 and 5 only
  • d. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Correct Answer: (c) 2, 4 and 5 only
Q.10
According to Kohlberg’s theory the conventional level of moral development includes the following stages:
  1. Obedience orientation
  2. Being Nice/Relationships orientation
  3. Social contract orientation
  4. Law and Order orientation
  5. Universal Ethical Principles orientation
  • a. 1 and 5 only
  • b. 3 and 4 only
  • c. 2 and 4 only
  • d. 2, 3 and 5 only
Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only
Q.11
The tendency of researchers to subtly and inadvertently affect the behaviours of participants in a study, obscuring the true effect of the independent variable, is called
  • a. Placebo effect
  • b. Experimenter Bias effect
  • c. The Hawthorne effect
  • d. Evaluation Apprehension effect
Correct Answer: (b) Experimenter Bias effect
Q.12
Arrange the following components of a research paper written in APA style, in the correct order:
  1. Figures
  2. Methods
  3. Introduction
  4. Tables
  5. Results
  • a. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
  • b. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
  • c. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
  • d. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
Correct Answer: (b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
Q.13
The extent to which a measure yields the same scores across different times, groups of people, or versions of the instrument, is called:
  • a. Reliability
  • b. Content validity
  • c. Construct validity
  • d. Predictive validity
Correct Answer: (a) Reliability
Q.14
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Snowball sampling is a type of random sampling.
Statement II: Snowball sampling is helpful when participants belong to hard-to-reach groups.
  • a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • b. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • d. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Correct Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Q.15
In the case of negatively skewed distribution
  • a. Mean < Mode < Median
  • b. Mean > Mode > Median
  • c. Mean > Median > Mode
  • d. Mean < Median < Mode
Correct Answer: (c) Mean > Median > Mode
Q.16
One of the cool media of communication is:
  • a. Print
  • b. Television
  • c. Photograph
  • d. Radio
Correct Answer: (c) Photograph
Q.17
In mass communication print is considered as a/an
  • a. Folk medium
  • b. Electronic medium
  • c. Mechanical medium
  • d. Ordinary medium
Correct Answer: (c) Mechanical medium
Q.18
Which of the following are the characteristics of interactive communication?
  1. It is decentralised.
  2. It is state controlled.
  3. It is highly centralized.
  4. It is a two-way communication.
  5. It provides universal citizenship.
  • a. 1, 2, 3 only
  • b. 2, 3, 4 only
  • c. 3, 4, 5 only
  • d. 1, 4, 5 only
Correct Answer: (d) 1, 4, 5 only
Q.19
Which of the following make classroom communication interesting?
  1. Many asides while speaking
  2. Fruitful discussions
  3. Use of relevant transitions
  4. Finding out the correct context
  5. Pressurising the students with authoritarian commands
  • a. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • b. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • c. 3, 4 and 5 only
  • d. 1, 4 and 5 only
Correct Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.20
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The new technologies have brought in ‘Market Specific Communication’.
Statement II: The second media age has made the interactive technologies of communication to change the mediascape.
  • a. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • b. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • c. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • d. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q.21
In a certain coding language:
  1. ‘odo pado fao’ means ‘order packed food’
  2. ‘pado fao sa digo’ means ‘packed food is good’
  3. ‘digo yao mao’ means ‘good young man’
  4. ‘yao mao sa sito’ mean ‘young man is strong’
Which of the following means ‘order’ and ‘strong’, respectively in that language?
  • a. ‘yao’ and ‘mao’
  • b. ‘digo’ and ‘mao’
  • c. ‘pado’ and ‘sito’
  • d. ‘odo’ and ‘sito’
Correct Answer: (d) ‘odo’ and ‘sito’
Q.22
In a competitive examination held in the year 2000, a total of 6,00,000 (6.0 lakh) students appeared and 40% passed the examination. Forty percent (40%) of the total students were females and the rest were males. The pass percentage among the males was 50%. Find the pass percentage among the females.
  • a. 25%
  • b. 30%
  • c. 35%
  • d. 40%
Correct Answer: (b) 30%
Q.23
What number should replace the question mark (?) in the following series:
450, 473, 519, 588, 680, 795?
  • a. 933
  • b. 950
  • c. 138
  • d. 82
Correct Answer: (a) 933
Q.24
A businessman buys a house for ₹ 9.0 lakhs. He puts the house on rent and keeps 15% of each month’s rent separately for repairs. After paying ₹ 2106 as annual taxes on the rent, he realizes 10% annually on his investment. Find the monthly rent of the house.
  • a. ₹ 10,000
  • b. ₹ 9,080
  • c. ₹ 9,030
  • d. ₹ 9,500
Correct Answer: (b) ₹ 9,080
Q.25
Sum of 3 consecutive odd numbers and 3 consecutive even numbers together is 231. Also the smallest odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest odd number and the largest even number?
  • a. 81
  • b. 73
  • c. 77
  • d. 79
Correct Answer: (d) 79
Q.26
“First it is staying out late, then it is not calling home, then wild parties, and before you know it, your life will be completely out of control. Someday you will be glad that you had a lockdown.”
Which informal fallacy is committed in the above argument?
  • a. Red herring
  • b. Slippery slope
  • c. Strawman
  • d. Appeal to authority
Correct Answer: (b) Slippery slope
Q.27
Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?
  1. No philosophers are industrialists.
  2. No industrialists are philosophers.
  3. All non-industrialists are non-philosophers.
  4. All philosophers are non-industrialists.
  • a. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • b. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • c. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • d. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.28
Which of the following statements are logically contradictory to each other?
  1. All philosophers are industrialists.
  2. Some philosophers are not industrialists.
  • a. 1 only
  • b. 2 only
  • c. Both 1 and 2
  • d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Q.29
If the statement ‘No philosophers are industrialists’ is given as true, which of the following statements can be immediately inferred from it to be true?
  • a. No philosophers are rich persons.
  • b. All industrialists are philosophers.
  • c. Some philosophers are industrialists.
  • d. Some philosophers are not industrialists.
Correct Answer: (d) Some philosophers are not industrialists.
Q.30
According to Nyaya (Classical Indian school of Logic) which means of knowledge (pramana) is used in the following argument –
“The world is an effect and hence it must have an efficient cause like all objects e.g. pots, cloth etc. do. That efficient cause is God”.
  • a. Postulation (arthapatti)
  • b. Inference (anumana)
  • c. Comparison (Upamana)
  • d. Verbal Testimony (Sabda)
Correct Answer: (b) Inference (anumana)
Q.31
Which one of the following acronyms matches incorrectly with their full form?
  • a. ATM – Automatic Teller Machine
  • b. SIM – Subscriber Identity Module
  • c. GPS – Global Positioning Sensor
  • d. GIS – Geographic Information System
Correct Answer: (c) GPS – Global Positioning Sensor
Q.32
Identify the correct order of the following terms A–E to complete the paragraph given below that explains how data is sent securely over the Internet using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol:

“The browser requests to the ____ to identify itself by providing its ____. This is sent and a check is performed to see if it is ____. If it is, the ____ sends a ____ back to the web server and data transmission begins.”
  1. authentic
  2. browser
  3. certificate
  4. signal
  5. web server
  • a. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
  • b. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
  • c. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
  • d. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
Correct Answer: (b) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
Q.33
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: AI is an artificially created environment used to give a feeling of being there, whereas virtual reality learns from changing circumstances.
Statement II: Unlike dot matrix and inkjet printers, laser printers don’t use ink when producing documents.
  • a. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • b. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • c. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • d. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Q.34
Which of the following are the main benefits of networking computers and devices rather than using a number of standalone computers?
  1. Devices, such as printers, can be shared, thus reducing costs.
  2. Licenses to run software on networks are often far cheaper than buying licenses for an equivalent number of standalone computers.
  3. Users cannot share files and data.
  4. Access to reliable data that comes from a central source, such as file server.
  • a. 1 and 3 only
  • b. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • d. 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.35
LIST I (Computer Term)
A. Disk defragmenter
B. Disk formatter
C. Device driver
D. Solid state drive

LIST II (Description)
1. Utility that prepares a disk to allow that files to be stored and retrieved.
2. Storage media with no moving parts.
3. Utility that reorganises the sectors on a hard disk so that files can be stored in contiguous data blocks.
4. Software that communicates with the OS and translates data into a format understood by the device.
  • a. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  • b. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  • c. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  • d. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Correct Answer: (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Q.36
Which of the following gases is responsible for acid rain?
  • a. Oxygen
  • b. Nitrogen
  • c. Sulphur dioxide
  • d. Carbon monoxide
Correct Answer: (c) Sulphur dioxide
Q.37
Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
  • a. Coal
  • b. Petroleum
  • c. Natural gas
  • d. Wind energy
Correct Answer: (d) Wind energy
Q.38
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of stages of the demographic transition theory?
  • a. High stationary → Early expanding → Late expanding → Low stationary
  • b. Early expanding → High stationary → Late expanding → Low stationary
  • c. High stationary → Late expanding → Early expanding → Low stationary
  • d. Low stationary → High stationary → Early expanding → Late expanding
Correct Answer: (a) High stationary → Early expanding → Late expanding → Low stationary
Q.39
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Biodiversity is important for maintaining ecological balance.
Statement II: Loss of biodiversity leads to ecosystem instability.
  • a. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • b. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • c. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • d. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q.40
Which of the following movements is associated with environmental protection?
  • a. Chipko Movement
  • b. Non-Cooperation Movement
  • c. Civil Disobedience Movement
  • d. Quit India Movement
Correct Answer: (a) Chipko Movement
Q.41
Which of the following is the apex body of higher education in India?
  • a. NCERT
  • b. AICTE
  • c. UGC
  • d. NCTE
Correct Answer: (c) UGC
Q.42
The Right to Education Act (2009) in India provides free and compulsory education to children of the age group of
  • a. 3–10 years
  • b. 6–14 years
  • c. 5–16 years
  • d. 6–18 years
Correct Answer: (b) 6–14 years
Q.43
Which one of the following committees recommended the establishment of University Grants Commission (UGC)?
  • a. Kothari Commission
  • b. Radhakrishnan Commission
  • c. Mudaliar Commission
  • d. Hunter Commission
Correct Answer: (b) Radhakrishnan Commission
Q.44
Which of the following is the main objective of accreditation in higher education?
  • a. To control the administration of institutions
  • b. To ensure accountability and quality assurance
  • c. To increase student enrollment
  • d. To promote privatization of education
Correct Answer: (b) To ensure accountability and quality assurance
Q.45
Which of the following is a core value of higher education?
  • a. Profit maximization
  • b. Academic freedom
  • c. Political dominance
  • d. Market monopoly
Correct Answer: (b) Academic freedom
Q.46
Which of the following statements is correct regarding MOOCs?
  • a. MOOCs are only available to enrolled university students
  • b. MOOCs allow unlimited participation and open access via the web
  • c. MOOCs are compulsory courses in higher education
  • d. MOOCs are conducted only through offline mode
Correct Answer: (b) MOOCs allow unlimited participation and open access via the web
Q.47
Which of the following Acts led to the establishment of the University Grants Commission (UGC) in India?
  • a. UGC Act, 1953
  • b. UGC Act, 1956
  • c. Education Act, 1950
  • d. Higher Education Act, 1961
Correct Answer: (b) UGC Act, 1956
Q.48
Which of the following is a major challenge faced by higher education institutions in India?
  • a. Excessive funding
  • b. Faculty surplus
  • c. Quality assurance
  • d. Over-regulation of admissions
Correct Answer: (c) Quality assurance
Q.49
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuous assessment helps in improving teaching-learning processes.
Statement II: Continuous assessment focuses only on summative evaluation.
  • a. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • b. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • c. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • d. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Q.50
Which of the following is the primary purpose of formative assessment?
  • a. Certification of learners
  • b. Ranking of students
  • c. Monitoring progress and providing feedback
  • d. Selection for higher education
Correct Answer: (c) Monitoring progress and providing feedback

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