UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper July 2018 (English) - Answer Key के साथ | Set P

Sooraj Krishna Shastri
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UGC NET J00018 Paper I

UGC NET Paper I - Set P (With Solutions)

Teaching Aptitude

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

  • (a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
  • (b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
  • (c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
  • (d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
  • (e) A teacher is a senior person.
  • (f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

  • (1) (a), (b) and (d)
  • (2) (b), (c) and (e)
  • (3) (a), (c) and (f)
  • (4) (d), (e) and (f)
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

  • (1) Prior experience of the learner
  • (2) Educational status of the parents of the learner
  • (3) Peer groups of the learner
  • (4) Family size from which the learner comes
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (1)

3. Match the methods of teaching (Set-I) with basic requirements for success (Set-II):

Set-I (Method)Set-II (Requirement)
(a) Lecturing(i) Small step presentation with feedback
(b) Discussion in groups(ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional procedure(iv) Use of teaching-aids
(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Code (a-b-c-d):

  • (1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  • (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
  • (3) (iii), (v), (ii), (i)
  • (4) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called 'formative evaluation'.

  • (a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
  • (b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.
  • (c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
  • (d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.
  • (e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months interval.
  • (f) The learner's motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Code:

  • (1) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (2) (b), (c) and (d)
  • (3) (a), (c) and (e)
  • (4) (b), (d) and (f)
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.
Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

Research Aptitude

6. Match Research types (Set-I) with Characteristics (Set-II):

Set-ISet-II
(a) Fundamental research(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention
(b) Applied research(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
(c) Action research(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions
(d) Evaluative research(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations
(v) Enriching technological resources

Code (a-b-c-d):

  • (1) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
  • (2) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii)
  • (3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  • (4) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

  • (1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
  • (2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
  • (3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
  • (4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

8. Which of the following sequences of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

  • (1) Suggested solution -> Consequences -> Perceiving problem -> Location of difficulty -> Testing.
  • (2) Perceiving problem -> Locating/defining -> Hypothesizing -> Deducing consequences -> Testing.
  • (3) Defining problem -> Identifying causes -> Defining population -> Sample -> Data -> Results.
  • (4) Identifying causal factors -> Defining problem -> Hypothesis -> Sample -> Data -> Generalizations.
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

9. The problem of 'research ethics' is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

  • (1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis
  • (2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques
  • (3) Defining the population of research
  • (4) Evidence based research reporting
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

  • (1) Preparing research summary
  • (2) Presenting a seminar paper
  • (3) Participation in research conference
  • (4) Participation in a workshop
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

Reading Comprehension (Q11-Q15)

Passage Summary: If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a 'fourth' dimension, time...

11. According to the passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?

  • (a) Aspirations of people
  • (b) Modern day dynamism
  • (c) Economy in the global context
  • (d) Strategic interests

Code:

  • (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (1)

12. More productive employment demands:

  • (1) Pervasive use of technology
  • (2) Limiting competitive market place
  • (3) Geo-political considerations
  • (4) Large industries
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (1)

13. Absence of technology would lead to:

  • (a) Less pollution
  • (b) Wastage of precious natural resources
  • (c) Low value addition
  • (d) Hurting the poorest most

Code:

  • (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
  • (4) (a), (c) and (d) only
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

14. The advantage of technological inputs would result in:

  • (1) Unbridled technological growth
  • (2) Importing plant machinery
  • (3) Sidelining environmental issues
  • (4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

15. Envisioning a developed India requires:

  • (1) Aspiration to become a major economic player
  • (2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad
  • (3) Focus on short-term projects
  • (4) Development of core technological strengths
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

Communication

16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

  • (1) Selective expectation of performance
  • (2) Selective affiliation to peer groups
  • (3) Selective attention
  • (4) Selective morality
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

17. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

18. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.
Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

19. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.
Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students' responses are purposive.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

20. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?

  • (a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
  • (b) Communication is a learnt ability.
  • (c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
  • (d) Communication cannot break-down.
  • (e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
  • (f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Code:

  • (1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
  • (2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)
  • (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (1)

Mathematical & Logical Reasoning

21. The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29, ? is:

  • (1) 36
  • (2) 47
  • (3) 59
  • (4) 63
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

22. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? is:

  • (1) ZKU
  • (2) ZCA
  • (3) ZKW
  • (4) KZU
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

  • (1) LOQOZEH
  • (2) HLZEOOQ
  • (3) ZELHOQO
  • (4) LQOOFZH
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

24. Introducing Rakesh to her husband a woman said, "His brother's father is the only son of my grandfather". The woman is related to Rakesh as:

  • (1) Aunt
  • (2) Mother
  • (3) Sister
  • (4) Daughter
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2:5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1:2. The numbers are:

  • (1) 16, 40
  • (2) 20, 50
  • (3) 28, 70
  • (4) 32, 80
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

26. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point. What type of reasoning is entailed in the above statement?

  • (1) Mathematical
  • (2) Psychological
  • (3) Analogical
  • (4) Deductive
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

27. Premises: (A) Most dancers are physically fit. (B) Most singers are dancers.
Conclusions: (a) Most singers are physically fit. (b) Most dancers are singers. (c) Most physically fit persons are dancers. (d) Most physically fit persons are singers.
Select valid conclusion:

  • (1) (a) and (b)
  • (2) (b) and (c)
  • (3) (c) and (d)
  • (4) (d) and (a)
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

28. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

  • (1) Law of identity
  • (2) Unchangeability in nature
  • (3) Harmony in nature
  • (4) Uniformity of nature
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

29. If the proposition 'domestic animals are hardly ferocious' is taken to be false, which proposition is certainly true?

  • (a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
  • (b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
  • (c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
  • (d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code:

  • (1) (a) and (b)
  • (2) (a) only
  • (3) (c) and (d)
  • (4) (b) only
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?

  • (1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
  • (2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
  • (3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.
  • (4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (3)

Data Interpretation (Q31-Q35)

Table Data: Rice Production, Exports, and Per Capita Consumption

YearProduction (Million Kg)Exports (Million Kg)Per Capita Cons. (Kg)
2012186.511436.25
201320211435.2
201423813038.7
201522111640.5
20162158842

31. The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year?

  • (1) 2013
  • (2) 2014
  • (3) 2015
  • (4) 2016
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

32. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?

  • (1) 2.64
  • (2) 2.72
  • (3) 2.79
  • (4) 2.85
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

33. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:

  • (1) 2012
  • (2) 2013
  • (3) 2014
  • (4) 2015
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

34. In which year, the population of country was the highest?

  • (1) 2013
  • (2) 2014
  • (3) 2015
  • (4) 2016
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

35. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012-2016?

  • (1) 104
  • (2) 102.1
  • (3) 108
  • (4) 100.1
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

Information and Communication Technology (ICT)

36. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?
P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks...

  • (1) P only
  • (2) Q only
  • (3) P and Q
  • (4) Neither P nor Q
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

37. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous Laptop models. Which technology has been used to accomplish this?

  • (1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
  • (2) Faster Random Access Memory
  • (3) Blu Ray Drive
  • (4) Solid State Hard Drive
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

38. Given email fields: To: ram@test.com; Cc: raj@test.com, ravi@test.com; Bcc: swami@test.com, rama@test.com. Which addresses will 'swami' be able to see?

  • (1) ram@test.com
  • (2) ram@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
  • (3) ram@test.com; rama@test.com
  • (4) ram@test.com; rama@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

39. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:
(a) Kilobyte (b) Byte (c) Megabyte (d) Terabyte (e) Gigabyte (f) Bit

  • (1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
  • (2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)
  • (3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
  • (4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

40. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is 'volatile' memory.
Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is 'volatile' memory.
R: Secondary Memory is 'volatile' memory.

  • (1) P only
  • (2) Q only
  • (3) P and Q only
  • (4) P and R only
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

People, Development and Environment

41. 'Fly ash' produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:

  • (a) agriculture as micro-nutrient
  • (b) wasteland development
  • (c) dam and water holding structures
  • (d) brick industry

Code:

  • (1) (a), (b) and (d) only
  • (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

42. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?

  • (1) Earthquakes
  • (2) Landslides
  • (3) Hurricanes
  • (4) Droughts
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

43. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is a serious health hazard.
Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (1)

44. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, identify the correct sequence of energy sources (TPP, LHP, NE, RE):

  • (1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE
  • (2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE
  • (3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
  • (4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

45. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?

  • (1) Unregulated small scale industry
  • (2) Untreated sewage
  • (3) Agricultural run-off
  • (4) Thermal power plants
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

Higher Education System

46. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:

  • (a) The United States of America
  • (b) Australia
  • (c) China
  • (d) United Kingdom (U.K.)

Code:

  • (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (4) (a) and (c) only
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (1)

47. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph.D programme in:

  • (1) State and Central Universities
  • (2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs
  • (3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities
  • (4) IITs and IISc
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (4)

48. Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select:

  • (a) the Central Information Commissioner
  • (b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner
  • (c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
  • (d) the Chairperson of National Commission for Women

Code:

  • (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

49. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?

  • (a) It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of women.
  • (b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
  • (c) It is an accounting exercise.
  • (d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Code:

  • (1) (b) and (d) only
  • (2) (a) and (d) only
  • (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (2)

50. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?

  • (a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
  • (b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
  • (c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
  • (d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth

Code:

  • (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
  • (4) (a) and (b) only
Check Answer

✅ Correct Answer: (1)

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